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I’m not defending the man’s actions, but how does this forfeiture work? It’s not imminent domain (for which he’d get to keep funds). It’s not him being forced to sell his home in order to pay reparations to his victims. And it’s not a fraud case in which the government is seizing assets to pay back those wrong. What law allows property to be seized in this manner?

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I can only assume they sold his house because where he’s going he ain’t gonna need it, he’s prolly gonna die in prison, and most likely has no family to take control of the property.
This guy sounds like a real predator so… no sympathy from me.

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It’s probably true in terms of him likely no longer being able to access the property, but that still doesn’t explain how the city can claim it? If he still had a mortgage and would default on it, then the bank gets the house like normal. If he owns it out right, then the county could eventually get the property after he fails to keep up with property taxes. But how did it directly go to the sheriffs office so quickly? There are a lot of abandoned property out there that isn’t taken away form people.

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That makes sense. If the entire property was “evidence”, they take it and then liquidate it, just like any police auction. Thanks! I knew there had to be a simple explanation.

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Who cares!!! Move on.

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It’s a no win, it was used to commit a crime, Everything in that house can be taking.
Just being Suspected of a crime lets them grab it. This issue is in the Courts because of people having the cops taking Money from lawful people while driving. You all need to read more than just RC stuff.
Here’s a site to follow.
http://howappealing.abovethelaw.com/

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Hmm. Interesting. I wonder if they take people’s cars after they’ve pled guilty to reckless endangerment, road rage or DUIs, too.

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